[ale] network question

Robert Heaven robertheaven at mediaone.net
Mon Aug 13 20:38:32 EDT 2001


If you have 2 (IP) subnets on the same (Ethernet) hub and you want the two
subnets to talk to each other then one machine on the hub must be the "gateway"
between the 2 subnets. In your routing, all machines would point to this one
gateway machine as the gateway to the other subnet. On the gateway machine the
routing should point both subnets to the same interface. Consequently, all data
packets between subnets would appear on the hub twice. (i.e., a packet from A to
B would have to go through G to be routed and the total distance between A and B
would be = A-G-B)

-Robert


Wandered Inn wrote:

> Mel Burslan wrote:
> >
> > The answer is yes to both hub and switch. If you are using a plain old
> > dumb hub, you are the one calling the shots which devices can talk to
> > which other device(s) on any given IP address range/subnet. If you are
> > using a switch, the situation may get more complicated if there are
> > "virtual lan"s to get into the action. In which case, switch ports which
> > are going to be on the same subnet must be assigned to the same VLANs.
>
> Okay, so a couple of folks say this is possible.  Question is, I'm not
> sure how this works.  For example, say I have a hub that contains
> 172.16.255.0, but I want to stick another machine on that hub with the
> ip of 172.16.200.15.  So how's the routing work?  I've tried this and
> this machine can't see any of the others.  The gw on this hub is
> 172.16.255.220, but I can't get the 172.16.200.15 machine to 'see' the
> gw.
>
> --
> Until later: Geoffrey           esoteric at denali.atlnet.com
>
> "Great spirits have always found violent opposition from mediocre minds.
> The latter cannot understand it when a man does not thoughtlessly submit
> to hereditary prejudices but honestly and courageously uses his
> intelligence." - Albert Einstein
> --
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